LAGMAN, ALLAN B.

LAGMAN, ALLAN B.                                                                                RESTO SEM

4BB

BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS

1. Which of the following materials exhibit adhesive qualities?

            a. zinc phosphate cement

b. polycarboxylate cement

c. ASPA (aluminosilicate polyacrylate cement)

d. BIS-GMA resins

Answer: b and c

                        These are adhesive to tooth structure.

2. The most effective dental cement is stimulating growth of secondary dentin is one of the ff:

            a. ZOE

            b. CaOH

            c. carboxylate cement

            d. Zinc phosphate cement

Answer: b – CaOH

Calcium hydroxide tends accelerates the formation of secondary dentin over the exposed pulp.

3. Which one of the following types of dental materials releases fluoride after placement of the material in the restoration?

            a. filled resin

            b. unfilled resin

            c. glas ionomer

            d. zinc phosphate cement

Answer: c – glass ionomer

 Glass ionomers contain and release fluoride which is important to preventing carious lesions. Furthermore, as glass ionomers release their fluoride, they can be recharged by the use of fluoride-containing toothpaste.

4. What is the other term used for “compomers”?

            a. traditional glass ionomers

            b. hybrid glass ionomers

            c. polyacid-modified resin composites

            d. metal-modified glass ionomers

            e. light-cured glass ionomers

Answer: c – polyacid-modified resin composites

These composites contain polymer-based composites and also glass ionomers, with the exception of water. Although the name conpomer implies that the material possesses a combination of characteristics of both composites and glass ionomers, these materials are essentially polymer based composites that have been slightly modified to take advantage of the potential fluoride behavior of glass ionomers.

5. Enamel bonding in the placement of resin restoratives:

            a. greatly reduces marginal leakage

            b. conserves tooth structure

            c. gives complete permanency to the restoration

            d. results in a smooth surface finish with composite

Answer: A B

                        Marginal leakage is essentially eliminated if the enamel bonding technique is utilized in conjunction with placement of a composite. The preparation outline form for reception may be minimal. Even if a glazed would be applied its longevity is limited and the basic underlying composite is not an will not remain smooth nor will it endure permanently.

6. Setting time of zinc phosphate cement may be increased by:

            a. using a slab cooled to just above the dew point

            b. using a lower ratio of liquid to powder

            c. using a longer mixing time

            d. adding the increments of a powder slowly

            e. a,b,c

            f. a,c,d

            g. b,c,d

            h. all of the above are correct

Answer: F

                        The more liquid employed to the ratio of the powder, the slower is the setting rate.

7. Application of BIS GMA sealant makes it unnecessary to replace a non carious defective margin between a metallic restorative and the enamel. (TRUE or FALSE)

Answer: FALSE

                        The BIS GMA sealants cannot create a water resistant bond with amalgams, gold, or non precious metallic restorations.

8. Proximal caries usually starts:

            a. at the contact areas

            b. bet. The contact area and the marginal ridge

            c. gingival to the free margin of the gingival tissue

            d. gingival to the contact area and occlusal to the free margin of the gingival tissue 

Answer: D

9. In a MO preparation there are how many point angles?

            a. 2

            b. 4

            c. 6

            d. 8

Answer: C

10. The amalgam exhibiting the least degree of creep is:

            a. lathe cut

            b. spherical

            c. combinations of spheres and fillings

            d. dispersed phase-high copper

Answer: D

11. The term high speed is designated for rotary instrumentation speeds of ______ revolutions per minute?

            a. 400,000 RPM

            b. 300,000 RPM

            c. 200,000 RPM

            d. 20,000-1000,000 RPM

Answer: D

12. In zinc phosphate cement liquid the buffering agents are zinc and :

            a. magnesium

            b. bismuth

            c. aluminum

            d. silicon

Answer: C. aluminum

13. The cohesive gold alloy used only as a bulk filler is:

            a. mat gold

            b. electroly

            c. spherical (powdered)

            d. gold foil

Answer: A

14. The gold alloys used for casting contain at least ______ percent of precious metals.

            a. 55%

            b. 65%

            c. 75%

            d. 85%

Answer: C

15. Direct wax patterns should be constructed with:

            a. type A inlay casting wax

            b. type B inlay casting wax

            c. type C inlay casting wax

Answer: B

16. A patient reports a serious allergic reaction to Oil of Cloves. Which of the following cements should be avoided?

a.       BIS GMA

b.      Glass Ionomer

c.       Phosphoric acid

d.      Ethoxybenzoic acid

e.       Zinc oxide eugenol

Answer: E

                        Eugenol is another name for Oil of Cloves.

17.   Special problems that will have a high dental impact on the geriatric patient except:

a.        lack of adaptive potential

b.      poor plaque control

c.       root caries

d.      periodontal breakdown and levels of toothwear.

e.       None of the above

f.       All of the above

Answer: E

                        All will have a high dental impact to geriatric patients.

18.  Geriatric population group considered as the young-old:

a.        55-64 years old

b.      65-74 years old

c.       75-84 years old

d.      85 years and above

e.       None of the above

Answer: B

                        Ages 65-74 are considered to be young old. Old for 75-84 years old and old-old for 85 years and above.

  19.  Cement bases should have which of the following characteristics?

            a. high edge strength

            b. low coefficient of thermal expansion

            c. low coefficient of thermal conductivity

            d. high ductility

            e. adhesiveness

          

                 Answer: C. low coefficient of thermal conductivity

20.   In selecting intermediate base the following criteria should be considered:

a.       ability of the material to protect the pulp

b.      ability of the material to eliminate postoperative discomfort

c.       ability of the material to prevent postoperative discomfort

d.      effect of material in clinical success of restoration

e.       all of the above

Answer: E. all of the above

                 The reason for using traditional liners of bases is to either protect the pulp or aid the     pulp in recovery or both.

Sources:

Ø  Sturdevant: Art and Science of Operative Dentistry 5^th edition     

                page 218

Ø  Review of Basic Science and Clinical Dentistry Volume 11 by Jack E. Wells; Page 23

Ø  Boucher, Louis J. A Comprehensive Review of Dentistry. W.B. Saunders Company.

Ø  http://www.ispub.com/journal/the_internet_journal_of_geriatrics_and_gerontology/volume_5_number_2_50/article/the-aged-mouth-an-insight.html

Ø  www.dentistrytoday.com/geriatric-dentistry/1160.html - Naka-cache

Ø  National Boards in Dentistry. Page 120

nazifi parviz

1.    Most cutting procedures with electrosurgery in the oral cavity are best accomplished with

          A. fully filtered, fully rectified current

          B. coagulation current

          C. fully rectified current

          D. partially rectified current

Answer C.) Fully rectified currents produce good cutting and adequate   hemostasis

2.     In the use of electrosurgery in the oral cavity, profound anesthesia is

          A. usually needed

          B. never needed

          C. almost always needed

          D. not needed for endodontically involved teeth

Answer C.) Profound anesthesia is needed because of the vital tissue which contains nerve ending. In addition, the electrode tip will stimulate the pulp much like a pulp-testing device.

3.    Electrosurgery is

          A. the same as electrosurgery

          B. accomplished with a cold electrode and an electronic arc

          C. performed by a heated electrode

          D. accomplished with a hot electrode and an electronic arc

Answer B.) Heat is produced by the impedence of the tissue and not in the electrode. Arcing occurs in the tissue at the point of electrode contact.

4.    A factor determining the setting for the cutting current is

          A. room temperature

          B. amount of anesthesia

          C. size of the machine being used

          D. tissue thickness

Answer D.) The setting for the cutting current is directly proportional of the thickness of the tissue. The ticker the tissue, the greater is the resistance to the passage of current. The nature, type, density and the amount of hydration all affect the resistance of tissue.

5.    Electrosurgical preparation of the sulcus for impression taking

          A. requires healthy gingival tissue

          B. requires the use of coagulation current

          C. eliminates the need for retraction cord

          D. requires the need of retraction cord

Answer A.) Healthy gingival tissue is a prerequisite for any impression taking procedure, whether preceded by electrosurgical techniques or the use of gingival retraction impregnated cor. The level of healing is unpredictable in unhealthy tissue.

6.    A too low setting of the control dial for cutting results in

          A. fulguration

          B. dessication

          C. more damage to tissue

          D. less damage to tissue

Answer C.) Too low a setting for cutting purposes with electrosurgical equipment result in more damage to the tissue because this reduces the impedence and the progress of the electrode through this tissue will be too slow. Greater heat will be produced on either side of the incision, which may result in necrosis.

7.    Tissue adhering to the electrode

          A. impedes the progress of the electrode through the tissue

          B. is of little importance

          C. requires the use of lower current settings

          D. usually volatilizes before it becomes a problem

Answer A.) Tissue adhering to the electrode will impede the progress of the electrode through the tissue because the retained tissue tags will reduce impedence. This will result in heat build-up latreral to the incision which may cause necrosis.

8.    The indifferent plate is used

          A. primarily for fulguration

          B. because it permits the use of higher currents

          C. primarily for electrodessication

          D. because it allows the use of lower currents

Answer D.) Although high frequency rediowaves do not require a circuit, the use of an indifferent plate allows more efficient return of energy to the source, thereby allowing the use of lower current settings which are less damaging.

9.    The foot control should be

          A. activated before cutting the tissue

          B. activated upon touching the tissue for cutting

          C. activated intermittently while cutting the tissue

          D. activated only for fulguration

Answer A.) The foot control should be activated prior to cutting the tissue because of the initial surge of energy that is generated at the tip which will cause tissue damage and coagulation.

10.        The crown-root ratio

          A. can easily be increased in periodontally involved posterior teeth

B. should never be decreased in periodontally involved anterior teeth

          C. can be decreased in periodontally involved anterior teeth

          D. none of the above

Answer C.) The crown root ratio can be decreased in periodontally involved anterior teeth to reduce the mobility factor and diminish the load on the anterior teeth. Reducing the crown root ratio in periodontally involved posterior teeth can result in the reduction of the vertical dimension.

11.  Decreasing the crown-root ratio in the posterior segment will

          A. result in an increased vertical dimension

          B. have no effect on facial height

          C. decrease vertical dimension

          D. none of the above

Answer C.) Shortening the crown to root ratio in the posterior segment can potentially decrease the primary holding or supporting cusps and result in a closed bite.

12.     Hemisection means

          A. the separation and removal of the roots of a tooth

          B. separating the roots of a tooth

          C. sectioning the roots of a tooth in half

          D. sectioning both the root and the crown of a tooth

Answer . D.) Hemisection means dividing the tooth essentially in half, sectioning and removal of any part of a root or roots is usually referred to as root amputation.

13.  A telescopic retainer is

          A. a special type of overcastting for crowns

          B. an additional casting underneath the crowns of a bridge

          C. an undercasting for posterior abutments only

          D. used primarily under partial denture abutments

Answer D.) Telescopic retainer is an additional casting underneath the crowns of a fixed bridge or a removal partial denture. It is usually constructed of gold alloy which is very thin in dimension. After the preliminary undercasting is made, impressions are taken to fabricate overcastting for a fixes bridege or a removable partial denture.

14.  A major limitation to the use of the anterior teeth is

          A. its added thickness

          B. its cost

          C. the length of treatment

D. esthetics

Answer A.) A major limitation in the use of telescopic retainer, especially in anterior teeth, is that it will provide additional thickness. Consequently, it is imperative that, in a construction of telescopic retainers, additional tooth structure is removed to provide space to accommodate both an undercasting and an overcastting.

15.     To cement the telescopic retainer to the abutment tooth

          A. a weaker cementing medium should be used than that for the overcase and retainer

B. a stronger cementing medium should be used than that for the overcase and retainer is advantageous

C. same type of cement is used as that for both overcase and telescope

D. none of the above

Answer B.) It is generally advisable to cement the undercasting directly to the abutment tooth with permanent cement. If this is not done the undercasting can, potentially, be dislodged. Other possible sequale marginal leakage, sensitivity, recurrent caries and loss of tooth vitality.

16.  The use of floss under a ridge lap pontic

          A. is an irritant when there is inflammation present

          B. adequately removes plaque

          C. improves the ridge tissue

          D. seldom is necessary

Answer A.) The use of loss under a ridge lap pontic will cause irritation to the tissue whether there is existing inflammation or not. The floss under a ridge lap pontic would rest upon the buccal and lingual extension of the cervical portion of the pontic; consequently the use of floss would further insult the ridge tissue.

17.  More important than the material used for a pontic is

          A. the shape of the ridge

          B. the position of abutment teeth

          C. the design of the pontic

          D. the number of the missing teeth

Answer C.) The design of the pontic is of utmost consideration in the fabrication of a fixed bridge because improper pontic design can result in chronic inflammation of the infrapontic space area which ultimately will involve the abutment teeth. Any material can be used for pontics provided that the modified ridge lap concept is employed, the surface of the pontic is highly polished and does not exert pressure on the residual ridge.

18.  The buccal and lingual shunting mechanism of a pontic

          A. can be narrower than that of the adjacent teeth

B. should conform to those of the adjacent teeth

C. can be disregarded in short span bridges

D. should be designed differently in the anterior segment as opposed to the posterior segment

Answer B.) The buccal lingual shunting mechanism of a pontic should conform to those of adjacent teeth to prevent food impactions at the abutments. Food impaction will result if the pontic has a narrower buccal/lingual dimension than the adjacent abutment teeth.

19.  In cases where the shape of the ridge is grossly aberrant

          A. compensate by the design of the pontic

          B. don’t consider fixed prosthetics

          C. consider the use if implants

          D. consider surgical correction

Answer D.) Grossly aberrant ridge tissue should be surgically corrected prior to the final impression. Apontic designed to aberrant ridge tissue will trap plaque and debris in the infrasurface portion, resulting in inflammation.

20.  Where there is a decrease by half or less of the inter-tooth space

          A. make the pontic half size

          B. use orthodontics to enlarge it

          C. recontour adjacent teeth with inlay, onlay, or crown

          D. extract a tooth to provide additional space

Answer C.) It is very important that one avoid match stick type pontics for this design usually causes plaque and food entrapment. It is more desirable to recontour adjacent teeth with inlays, onlays or crowns to close up a space that has been decreased by half or less of the intertooth space originally provided. These can be single, unsoldered units to allow for maintenance.